What is the reason for the removal of the `?` decorator in this mapped type? Are there alternative methods to achieve a similar outcome without eliminating it

Challenge

In the process of creating a mapped type that excludes properties of type Function, we encountered an issue. Our current method not only eliminates functions but also strips away the optional decorator (?) from the mapped properties.

Scenario

For a clear understanding, you can view a simplified example that highlights this behavior - NoOpMap1 works as intended, while NoOpMap2 showcases the problematic behavior.

type NoOpMap1<T> = { // Successful. Retains the ?
    [K in keyof T]: T[K];
};

type Keys<T> = {
    [K in keyof T]: K;
}[keyof T];

type NoOpMap2<T> = { // Issue. Removes the ?
    [K in Keys<T>]: T[K];
};

Demonstration

type SomeType = {
    foo?: string,
}

// type SomeTypeNoOpMap1 = { foo?: string; }
type SomeTypeNoOpMap1 = NoOpMap1<SomeType>;

// type SomeTypeNoOpMap2 = { foo: string; }
type SomeTypeNoOpMap2 = NoOpMap2<SomeType>;

NoOpMap1 operates correctly by retaining the ? decorator on the foo property. In contrast, NoOpMap2 removes it unexpectedly.

Inquiry

We are puzzled about why NoOpMap2 is eliminating the ? decorator. Is there a way to achieve similar results without removing it?

Real-life Example

Below is the comprehensive type structure that we aim to establish:

type DataPropertyNames<T> = {
  [K in keyof T]: T[K] extends Function ? never : K;
}[keyof T];

type DataPropertiesOnly<T> = {
  [K in DataPropertyNames<T>]
  : T[K] extends (string | number | boolean) ? T[K]
  : T[K] extends (infer A)[] ? DataPropertiesOnly<A>[]
  : DataPropertiesOnly<T[K]>;
};

This defined type plays a crucial role in filtering out function properties while ensuring that the optional ? decorators remain intact on other properties.

Answer №1

To maintain the optional/readonly status of properties within a mapped type, it is crucial to ensure that the compiler views the mapping as homomorphic. There are two known methods to achieve this.

The first approach involves creating a mapping in the form of {[K in keyof T]: ...}, where the direct mapping over keyof T for a specific T (either generic or concrete) must be present with in keyof explicitly appearing in the type definition.

interface Foo {
    optional?: string;
    readonly viewonly: string;
}

type Homomorphic = { [K in keyof Foo]: 0 };
// type Homomorphic = { 
//   optional?: 0 | undefined; 
//   readonly viewonly: 0; 
// }

type KeyOf<T> = keyof T
type NonHomomorphic = { [K in KeyOf<Foo>]: 0 };
// type NonHomomorphic = { 
//   optional: 0; 
//   viewonly: 0; 
// }

The second method involves mapping over a generic type parameter K constrained to keyof T for another generic type parameter T.

type GenericConstraint<T, K extends keyof T> = { [P in K]: 0 };
type ConstrainedHomomorphic = GenericConstraint<Foo, keyof Foo>;
// type ConstrainedHomomorphic = { 
//   optional?: 0 | undefined; 
//   readonly viewonly: 0; 
// }

type OnlySomeKeysStillHomomorphic = GenericConstraint<Foo, "viewonly">;
// type OnlySomeKeysStillHomomorphic = {
//   readonly viewonly: 0;
// }

The latter technique was specifically introduced to enable partial mappings like Pick<T, K> to be homomorphic. It is this method that needs to be implemented for the desired use case to function correctly:

// unchanged
type DataPropertyNames<T> = {
    [K in keyof T]: T[K] extends Function ? never : K;
}[keyof T];

// quick abort if T is a function or primitive
// otherwise pass to a homomorphic helper type 
type DataPropertiesOnly<T> =
    T extends Function ? never :
    T extends object ? DPO<T, DataPropertyNames<T>> :
    T

// homomorphic helper type
type DPO<T, KT extends keyof T> = {
    [K in KT]
    : T[K] extends (string | number | boolean) ? T[K]
    : T[K] extends (infer A)[] ? DataPropertiesOnly<A>[]
    : DataPropertiesOnly<T[K]>;
}

Implementing these methods should align with your requirements. Good luck!

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